How are jackpots rolled over????

[kosteczki]

Ok maybe this has been answered before but I am really wondering how they roll over jackpots that have not been won.
I always taught that they would take all the funds from the pools fund that wasn't won (the 53% of ticket sales) and roll it over to the next jackpot.

But I look at August 27th, Jackpot was $8,452,232 and 5+B was 343,718 total $8,795,950 from the pools fund that wasn't won.

August 31st, total ticket sales are $21,450,000 so I would expect the pools funds to be $21,450,000 X 0.53 = $11,368,500 + $8,795,950 for the previous unwon pools fund. Total being $20,164,450 X 0.805 = The expected Aug 31 Jackpot of $16,232,382.25.
the 5+B being $1,159,455 / by the 4 winners =$289,863.97
the 5 being $957,811.37 / divided by the 155 winners =$6,179.43
and the 4 being $1,814,800.5 / divided by 9067 winners = $200.15

but what I see is quite a bit off
6 1 $14,975,642.00
5 + bonus 4 $110,351.60
5 155 $2,352.50 364637.5
4 9,067 $76.20 690906

Total of prize fund being $16,472,591.9
off from $20,164,450 by just shy of $4,000,000.

What am I missing here???

 

[tomtom]

Well, can't help with your question because I neither play nor I'm interested in that game since found the tickets in my opinion are way too expensive…always was thinking that playing something like 100 tickets for example , and getting a 4/6 while beating the odds many 100% should produce a winner? Not sure how is with that game...

 

[tomtom]

Well, can't help with your question because I neither play nor I'm interested in that game since found the tickets in my opinion are way too expensive…always was thinking that playing something like 100 tickets for example , and getting a 4/6 while beating the odds many 100% should produce a winner? Not sure how is with that game...

Or to simplify, if someone played 100 tickets, and won one 4/6 while beating the odds quite many 100% s, simple math using your posted data shows 200-76.20= 123.8 money loss even being a winner…


BTW, regarding YOUR question, it seems you forgot about counting 2+b and 3/6 prizes in your data, or something like that...

 

[kosteczki]

The 3 and 2+B should not matter they, suposably, come from the 47% which is the prize fund the rest goes to the pool fund.

 

[mirage]

The 3 and 2+B should not matter they, suposably, come from the 47% which is the prize fund the rest goes to the pool fund.

My simplistic understanding was that the Lotto corp rolled over only the main prize, the jackpot, and not the rest. Since each jackpot was supposed to be $4 mil, then each unwon jackpot would increase the rolled over amount by $4mil. However, I've noticed the Lotto corp applies this rule loosely, at their whim almost, sometimes increasing by more than $4 mil rounding it up to say $10 mil as a carrot incentive or something to encourage tickets sales. But they can't keep up the carrot indefinitely without it coming from somewhere else. It must come from a kitty of unwon, kept aside or uncollected prize amounts. Since the ticket sales are often not what they expected often times (after they launched their price increase to $2), the jackpot prize sometimes falls short of $4 mil. so they are applying the rules any which way they want to it seems.

The last unwon jackpot was less than $4 mil. (I have not checked what it will be for this coming Sat.) In the past, even when unwon jackpot less than $4 mil. the rolled over jackpot somehow has always been at least $8 mil. I can't believe that this is just because a rolled over jackpot encourages ticket sales by that much more to make up the difference - they must be taking the money from somewhere else.

 

[mirage]

Reiterating, it is my understanding that there is no rollover of any amounts except the main jackpot.

 

[kosteczki]

yes there usually seems to be more sales if there was no jackpot won the previous draw.
2 non-win draws and expect the sales to be around 20 million